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This was invaluable to me, thanks so much, you helped me out of a hole.
Isn't BOP based on double entry bookkeeping then how does this still happen?
thank you, indeed it was quite confusing, but you explained it really well
Hi, I have a question :(why does excess supply of foreign currency reflects in a surplus in the balance of payments?
How can CAB AND FAB BE DIFFERENT than 0 ???? In a different video you explain that they always equal to each other
Did you figure this out? I have the same question.
If the Central Bank buys/sells currency, that part of the transaction would be in the official settlements balance. Thus CAB and FAB (which includes private transactions) wouldn't be necessarily zero.
This was invaluable to me, thanks so much, you helped me out of a hole.
Isn't BOP based on double entry bookkeeping then how does this still happen?
thank you, indeed it was quite confusing, but you explained it really well
Hi, I have a question :(
why does excess supply of foreign currency reflects in a surplus in the balance of payments?
How can CAB AND FAB BE DIFFERENT than 0 ???? In a different video you explain that they always equal to each other
Did you figure this out? I have the same question.
If the Central Bank buys/sells currency, that part of the transaction would be in the official settlements balance. Thus CAB and FAB (which includes private transactions) wouldn't be necessarily zero.