Shouldn’t the graph of pV/p not have a y-intercept? Mathematically if p=0, pV must equal 0, but pV cannot equal 0 because T is constant. If pV=k, then for a graph of V against P, V=k(1/p). This graph has no y-intercept, but instead an asymptote at p=0. Now to get the graph of pV against p, we multiply all the values on the y-axis by p. This causes the range to change, but not the domain. Hence p=0 does not exist. Also we cannot say V=infinity when p=0, as pV=0*infinity=undefined.
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Shouldn’t the graph of pV/p not have a y-intercept? Mathematically if p=0, pV must equal 0, but pV cannot equal 0 because T is constant. If pV=k, then for a graph of V against P, V=k(1/p). This graph has no y-intercept, but instead an asymptote at p=0. Now to get the graph of pV against p, we multiply all the values on the y-axis by p. This causes the range to change, but not the domain. Hence p=0 does not exist.
Also we cannot say V=infinity when p=0, as pV=0*infinity=undefined.
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