i dont quite understand why the integral of rcv dm is zero. I thought, since we are trying to calculate I_B so the axis (x,y) is in respect of B. Hence integral of rcv dm shouldnt be zero. Can you please explain it to me? Thx!
Hi you might be able to help me out with something i cant figure out: If I apply the parallel axis theorem to a (non-spinning) body of mass m in uniform circular motion around a point a distance r away, then I get the angular momentum of the body about the point is (I + mr^2) omega where I is the body's moment of inertia around its COM and omega is the body's angular velocity around the point. However if we compute the angular momentum by just getting the orbital angular momentum about the point (where the body isn't spinning around its COM), we get r × mv = (mr^2 omega) which is clearly different to what we got above. Can you point out where I might be making a mistake here. Your help is greatly appreciated. Thanks.
Cool to finally see this derived!
Explained as it should be. Well done!
I wish my professor could explain as good as you did in just 2 minutes...
That‘s very kind of you, thanks for watching!
Would you look at that, a Pretty Much Physics video i actually understand
That’s great! We all have to start at the beginning somewhere.
These are great! Could you make a video about Faddeev-Popov ghosts please!
Great idea! That’s a tough topic for a 5 minute video though, but we’ll think about it!
That was great! Glad I stayed subscribed n
i dont quite understand why the integral of rcv dm is zero. I thought, since we are trying to calculate I_B so the axis (x,y) is in respect of B. Hence integral of rcv dm shouldnt be zero. Can you please explain it to me? Thx!
Look into product of inertia. This is a pretty good video explaining it th-cam.com/video/8_3sDlue0nI/w-d-xo.html
Hi thanks for the proof, could you explain in more details why 2a*Integral(rcv) dm is 0 pls ?
Hi you might be able to help me out with something i cant figure out:
If I apply the parallel axis theorem to a (non-spinning) body of mass m in uniform circular motion around a point a distance r away, then I get the angular momentum of the body about the point is
(I + mr^2) omega where I is the body's moment of inertia around its COM and omega is the body's angular velocity around the point.
However if we compute the angular momentum by just getting the orbital angular momentum about the point (where the body isn't spinning around its COM), we get r × mv = (mr^2 omega) which is clearly different to what we got above.
Can you point out where I might be making a mistake here.
Your help is greatly appreciated.
Thanks.
Neato
I didn't understand a thing😔
Any concrete questions we can help you with?
@@PrettyMuchPhysics i didn't understand why the intergral of rcvdm is 0
You can't use Steiner Theorem without adding Kurt Angle. Downvote