Interest rate risk management (1) Part 2 - ACCA (AFM) lectures

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  • เผยแพร่เมื่อ 10 ธ.ค. 2024

ความคิดเห็น • 15

  • @Abbas-oj6ne
    @Abbas-oj6ne 2 ปีที่แล้ว +3

    Interest Rate Futures: 15:00 - 19:10 wonderfully explained 👌

  • @blackm9063
    @blackm9063 3 หลายเดือนก่อน

    Many thanks for this Golden lectures.. Blessed

  • @achuthanunnirajendrakumar6135
    @achuthanunnirajendrakumar6135 3 ปีที่แล้ว +5

    Hello John,
    I was just curious as to why open tuition material is available for free. What was the reasoning behind choosing this particular business model? Is it driven by philanthropic ideals?
    Thank you.

  • @luisasolispuello4964
    @luisasolispuello4964 8 หลายเดือนก่อน

    Excellent lecture.

  • @simrandeepsingh3802
    @simrandeepsingh3802 ปีที่แล้ว

    You said that that we divide (Sell - Buy) by 1/4 and 1/100= 1/400.
    Why exactly do we divide it by these two numbers?
    Thanks!

    • @opentuition
      @opentuition  ปีที่แล้ว

      If you want out tutor to answer then please ask in the free Paper AFM Ask the Tutor Forum on our free website. Our tutors do not monitor questions posted here but they always answer questions posted in our Ask the Tutor Forums.

  • @brian-kt1rc
    @brian-kt1rc 4 ปีที่แล้ว

    How come it is divided by 100x4 and not by 92x4?

    • @brian-kt1rc
      @brian-kt1rc 4 ปีที่แล้ว

      Thanks for all the lectures by the way

    • @opentuition
      @opentuition  4 ปีที่แล้ว +1

      @@brian-kt1rc I am not sure where you are getting 92 from. We divide by 100 because it is quoted as a %. We divide it by 4 because it is an annual percent but we calculate it for 3 months (because they are 3 month futures).

    • @brian-kt1rc
      @brian-kt1rc 4 ปีที่แล้ว

      Thank you for the quick response, I was not expecting it. I understand that the denominator is multiplied by 4, but I thought that the futures price that was originally locked in was 92 and so the change of 92-90 divided then by the futures price of 92 as a base or denominator to get a % change

    • @opentuition
      @opentuition  4 ปีที่แล้ว

      @@brian-kt1rc No. The change of 2 means that the gain or loss is 2% of the amount, and so 2/100 :-)

    • @brian-kt1rc
      @brian-kt1rc 4 ปีที่แล้ว

      @@opentuition thanks!

  • @questionmarks5267
    @questionmarks5267 4 ปีที่แล้ว +3

    baby example :D

    • @opentuition
      @opentuition  4 ปีที่แล้ว +5

      Of curse it is - that is why there are three more lectures in this series!