@@jezzy3472 the income effect is not constant, The total change in demand is equal to price plus income effect, but since substitution effect's sign is negative, as demand is negatively related to demand, negative of substituting plus positive sign of income effect, (since marshalian demand's are non decreasing in increasing income), now inorder to isolate the total change due to substitution effect we substract , It will be clear if you consider some examples online or from any book
@@EconomicsinManyLessons sir, I have a doubt.... Derivative of expenditure with respect to price is equal to hiksian demand function. Than how X could be ordinary or Marshallian demand function? Please reply
one of the most complex concepts of consumer behavior.. finally understood after 2yrs.. a big big thanks
amazing work. You made it look easy. In Kenya we say, Barikiwa sana(Be blessed a lot)
Amazing video!! I couldn't find a better explanation on the internet, very easy-to-follow.
Thanks a lot for your work!!!!
good fucking luck to anyone who needs to learn this
GOD!!!! THANKS SO MUCH. I HAVE MICRO MIDTERM 10 HRS LATER AND NOW ITS 3AM
This is really clear and concise !! Thank you!
Thank u so much Sir.. The Explanation Is Easiest And Understandable. ❤❤🙏🙏🤩🤩
Awesome! Very clear explanation!
Thank you for this easy explanation.🙏
Absolutely incredible video! Thak you so much!
Dude you are amazing,
taught it better than uni lecturers
There is some confusion regarding enevelope theorem. I couldn't get it. How the the partial derivative came out to be x only?
Thank you Sir. I think it should X^c after the envelop theorem of the expenditure function instead of x. I am not sure whether it is correct.
Thanks a lot. This video is very useful for me.
How can i find all of this lessons ordered
thank you very much sir
Asante sana
Thank u so much sir❤
Thank you very much Sir.
Amazing!!
How you teach with this low voice?
SIR WHY "TOTAL EFFECT OF PRICE CHANGE=SUBSITUTION -INCOME"
RATHER THAN ADDING THOSE TWO
?????
@@mohammadzaid4100 because we looking to isolate the changes in demand for good x, while holding income effect constant,
only cosidering substituation effect due to price change
@@vibhuvikramaditya4576 But then if income effect is constant then it should be zero.. why subtract?
@@jezzy3472 the income effect is not constant, The total change in demand is equal to price plus income effect, but since substitution effect's sign is negative, as demand is negatively related to demand, negative of substituting plus positive sign of income effect, (since marshalian demand's are non decreasing in increasing income), now inorder to isolate the total change due to substitution effect we substract , It will be clear if you consider some examples online or from any book
thanks
I understand how you got 'X' by partially differentiating E. But is it just X, or its the Marshallian demand
X is the ordinary or Marshallian demand.
@@EconomicsinManyLessons sir, I have a doubt.... Derivative of expenditure with respect to price is equal to hiksian demand function. Than how X could be ordinary or Marshallian demand function? Please reply
@@riiajais1833right
pls dont chew gum while explaining sth bcos I couldnt focus to the video