At 15:20 I am only concerned with the pullback of the 1-form dz which has a coefficient of 1. Hence w(f(p)) = 1 at this point of the calculation. Perhaps you missed my verbal explanation of this? In the final slide I put it altogether for the final answer.
There seems to be a lot of time spent on the easy bit, like the expansion of the exterior algebra. More time needs to be spent on the actual definition. The example was nice though.
At 15:20, why is wj(f(p)) =1? You mentioned before that w(f(p))=Q(z1 z2 z3)dz1^dz2^dz3.
At 15:20 I am only concerned with the pullback of the 1-form dz which has a coefficient of 1. Hence w(f(p)) = 1 at this point of the calculation. Perhaps you missed my verbal explanation of this? In the final slide I put it altogether for the final answer.
Yes, thankyou your clarity of explaination.🎉
Thanks a lot !
You're welcome!
There seems to be a lot of time spent on the easy bit, like the expansion of the exterior algebra. More time needs to be spent on the actual definition. The example was nice though.
For more emphasis on definitions go back to the first videos on the pullback in this series.