Richard McLaughlin if as you say "the epistle of James was written before the crucifixion," (1) Why is it a part of N.T. scripture? Christ lived under the law given through Moses! (Galatians 4:4) ; (2) How could the letter of James be written TO "the twelve tribes which are of the dispersion? (James 1:1); (3) How could the recipients of the letter have been called by "the honorable name?" (James 2:7; Acts 11:26); (4) How and why could he encourage believers to "look into the perfect law of liberty (the gospel) and CONTINUE IN IT..." (James 1:25); (5) Why would he tell the person who is suffering to "call for the elders of the church/congregation?" (James 5:14) To say that James was written before the crucifixion is not only false, it is irresponsible.
@@mikerichards1498 I have wondered the same thing and Richard hasn't provided anything in responses to prove his opinion. On that basis I have to agree with Moo.
Does this guy really believe that first Peter was written by Peter? I don't know any modern scholar out there other than him that does! First Peter is obviously written as a direct response to James's letter by one of the followers of Paul if not Paul himself! It's sole purpose is to give credibility to Paul someone who has none in terms of talking of Yeshua to a Jew. He has no firsthand knowledge is simply repeating rumors at best, but more likely dilutions or illusions. This teacher has absolutely no concept of what was going on in first-century Palestine. I cannot believe that I'm still listening to him but I like to listen to opinions that differ from mine because sometimes I do actually learn something.
Insightful and very inspirational
Already but not yet balance explained with great enlighyenment
The Epistle of James was written before the Crucifixion.
Richard McLaughlin if as you say "the epistle of James was written before the crucifixion," (1) Why is it a part of N.T. scripture? Christ lived under the law given through Moses! (Galatians 4:4) ; (2) How could the letter of James be written TO "the twelve tribes which are of the dispersion? (James 1:1); (3) How could the recipients of the letter have been called by "the honorable name?" (James 2:7; Acts 11:26); (4) How and why could he encourage believers to "look into the perfect law of liberty (the gospel) and CONTINUE IN IT..." (James 1:25); (5) Why would he tell the person who is suffering to "call for the elders of the church/congregation?" (James 5:14) To say that James was written before the crucifixion is not only false, it is irresponsible.
@@mikerichards1498 spot on!
@@mikerichards1498 I have wondered the same thing and Richard hasn't provided anything in responses to prove his opinion. On that basis I have to agree with Moo.
Does this guy really believe that first Peter was written by Peter? I don't know any modern scholar out there other than him that does! First Peter is obviously written as a direct response to James's letter by one of the followers of Paul if not Paul himself! It's sole purpose is to give credibility to Paul someone who has none in terms of talking of Yeshua to a Jew. He has no firsthand knowledge is simply repeating rumors at best, but more likely dilutions or illusions.
This teacher has absolutely no concept of what was going on in first-century Palestine. I cannot believe that I'm still listening to him but I like to listen to opinions that differ from mine because sometimes I do actually learn something.
The begs the question, who do you think wrote it and on what basis & evidence?
@@HearGodsWord I said who wrote it and why in the comment.
Insightful and very inspirational