Hi sir Could you plz explain us on the bellow 2 points. 1) In Q.No.42,CH.13 Mergers & Acquisition In PM (Pg.No13.65) How to calculate Risk weighted assets ..? 2) Q.No 61,CH.13 Mergers & Acquisition In PM Pg No.13.92. The point "Repayment of principal would be reduced by 2/3 s to ₹25000 per year...?
I am getting a loss in second way; FIRST I converted my USD into GBP at 0.6161 pound/USD then converted that pound into rupee I got 47.76 rupees which would automatically show a loss if I convert them into USD at the rate of 48.30 because 47.76 divide by 48.30 will be less than 1USD NOTE - I am taking only 1 USD at start.
Hello sir, Sir for SFM can we solve only PM and no other books for old syllabus nov 18? I have not taken any tuitions except ur classes in TH-cam. Study material bhi krna hga ki PM is more thn enough?
Sir.. in which world would you get such arbitrage opportunity?? Since when GBP/INR is getting traded in London?? Can you take an example of live rates and prove that such arbitrage could be done??
Amazing channel and videos! Really helpful. Please keep posting
Thankyou sir ! Love u awesome ...
Thank you so much for the content
Thanks for showing 2 ways of calculation.
This is very helpful when i was confused.
thanku sir...
Thanks from cma students
Superb
Thnx a lot Sir........
🙏🙏🙏🙏
Hi sir Could you plz explain us on the bellow 2 points.
1) In Q.No.42,CH.13 Mergers & Acquisition In PM (Pg.No13.65) How to calculate Risk weighted assets ..?
2) Q.No 61,CH.13 Mergers & Acquisition In PM Pg No.13.92. The point "Repayment of principal would be reduced by 2/3 s to ₹25000 per year...?
Thank you so much sir 🙏
i leanred hindi and forex both . thanks
Thankew sir
May 17 RTP they have given two rates for each market !!! Can u share a a video was able to solve still could explain might feel better
Thank you sir
I am getting a loss in second way; FIRST I converted my USD into GBP at 0.6161 pound/USD then converted that pound into rupee I got 47.76 rupees which would automatically show a loss if I convert them into USD at the rate of 48.30 because 47.76 divide by 48.30 will be less than 1USD
NOTE - I am taking only 1 USD at start.
Happy teachers day to the best teacher.. And my guiding force :)
Thank you so much Nehal
Sir arbitrage ko theories me sajhana pls
Plz explain 2 point arbitrage
Which exchange I can do the arbitrrage.
Hello sir,
Sir for SFM can we solve only PM and no other books for old syllabus nov 18?
I have not taken any tuitions except ur classes in TH-cam.
Study material bhi krna hga ki PM is more thn enough?
Sir eco ki rev. Vids. Pvt. Kyu kar di
Aap isko ulta calculate karke bata sakte ho
I am not getting same answer by taking GBP/USD CONSTANT...
It is coming 77.52/48.30 =1.60
So cross rate < direct rate...
😑
It's showing loss......
Yes
Why it is base and price?
Sir.. in which world would you get such arbitrage opportunity?? Since when GBP/INR is getting traded in London?? Can you take an example of live rates and prove that such arbitrage could be done??
Thanks sir