The difference between is that law of variable proportion defines the relationship between TP,AP and MP, but diminishing marginal utility defines TU and MU ,it does not define AU,the slopes are same both the cases but there is constant variable but incase of utility there is no constant goos and services
Law of variable proportion is a short run concept, as it depicts change in production varying only one input (like labor) and keeping other input fixed. ( like capital) Where as, law of diminishing returns is a long run concept in which output can be increased by varying all the inputs (both capital and labor).
Sir, in question 10th, option C is correct.. The IC is L-shaped for complementary goods..! in the L-shape, the horizontal fragment represents zero slope and vertical fragment represents infinite slope..
Sir, in 8th question, option C should be correct... Fixed cost is included in total cost.. While he has no variable cost, but he is incurring fixed cost and implicit cost
Law of variabla portional say that if we Increase in labour in short rut the production startingly increasing at increasing rate after that production rasing at decreasing rate after production remain constant and maximum after that prodution starting following down Law of dimmnishing marginale unility. If we consume editional unit of commodity marginal unitiliy of that good decrease.
Sir law of variable proportions shows when we used more and more variable factors with constant fixed factor TP will increase initially but after a point it will smaller and smaller ..whereas law of diminishing marginal MP shows after a point MP of variable factor start falling and any additional variable factor MP can be zero and even be negative......Sir plz guide me if i am wrong......
I've confusion in question 30. Consumers are preferring low quality goods that's why low quality good drive out good quality good so that mean they're talking risk na/? Why it is risk aversion eventhough they are talkin low quality good ??
Sir in last qsn. 50. The 0A line shows returns to scale? Or the vertical and horizontal line shows law of return. But what is the difference between law of return and returns to scale? OA lines show the change of both the input. Sir please help me
Sir why won't the Fisherman have any cost ?? Like yes the Fisherman doesn't have any variable cost but depreciation cost of net and implicit cost in the form of his labour are there . So why there will be zero cost ?? Kindly explain.
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In question 30, correction option would be B.. Risk aversion can't be reason of lemon's problems
The difference between is that law of variable proportion defines the relationship between TP,AP and MP, but diminishing marginal utility defines TU and MU ,it does not define AU,the slopes are same both the cases but there is constant variable but incase of utility there is no constant goos and services
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Law of variable proportion is applicable in production context while law of diminishing marginal utility is applicable in consumption aspect
Law of variable proportion is a short run concept, as it depicts change in production varying only one input (like labor) and keeping other input fixed.
( like capital)
Where as, law of diminishing returns is a long run concept in which output can be increased by varying all the inputs (both capital and labor).
Thank you so much Sir for helping us. And your clear explanation..... May God bless you.......
Sir, in question 10th, option C is correct.. The IC is L-shaped for complementary goods..! in the L-shape, the horizontal fragment represents zero slope and vertical fragment represents infinite slope..
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Sir, in 8th question, option C should be correct... Fixed cost is included in total cost.. While he has no variable cost, but he is incurring fixed cost and implicit cost
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sir this session mein lagrahihe ki exam attend kar rahihun. Really it's a very good session sir.👌🙏👍
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Thanks sir you are a great economy teacher
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Too good. Proper revision happening
Hey bro preparation is going on ?
Minopolistic chamberlin Or Paul sweezy??
Monopolistic competition theory was given by Chamberlin in 1933
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Law of variabla portional say that if we
Increase in labour in short rut the production startingly increasing at increasing rate after that production rasing at decreasing rate after production remain constant and maximum after that prodution starting following down
Law of dimmnishing marginale unility.
If we consume editional unit of commodity marginal unitiliy of that good decrease.
Great sir
Sir, Q . 48) mei doubt hei, reason galat diya hei naa Sir question mei??? 1:44:05 hr mei hei Q.48 🙏🙏🏽🙏🏻
Osm session sir 😇😊ty so much sir
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Very useful session Sir... thank you sir 🙏🙏
Thank you very much sir 🙏🙏
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Telegram channel plz where u delivered all pdf
Ty sir .great session sir
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Nice session sir.. 🙏🙏🙏
Welcome
Normative economy?
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Sir please upload a video on Public Finance
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Sir a quick doubt..
How does product differentiation bring in inefficiency in the market??
Hello sir.. can you solve Karnataka set economic paper 2021
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Sir law of variable proportions shows when we used more and more variable factors with constant fixed factor TP will increase initially but after a point it will smaller and smaller ..whereas law of diminishing marginal MP shows after a point MP of variable factor start falling and any additional variable factor MP can be zero and even be negative......Sir plz guide me if i am wrong......
Thanku so much sir 🙏
Welcome keep learning and keep sharing video with your friends
20-a
thank you sir
Welcome🙏
I've confusion in question 30. Consumers are preferring low quality goods that's why low quality good drive out good quality good so that mean they're talking risk na/? Why it is risk aversion eventhough they are talkin low quality good ??
Sir in last qsn. 50. The 0A line shows returns to scale? Or the vertical and horizontal line shows law of return. But what is the difference between law of return and returns to scale? OA lines show the change of both the input. Sir please help me
Sorry qsn. From telegram. Q. 10
Sir why won't the Fisherman have any cost ?? Like yes the Fisherman doesn't have any variable cost but depreciation cost of net and implicit cost in the form of his labour are there . So why there will be zero cost ?? Kindly explain.
Capitalism everywhere, most of your video removed 😅
Sir I can't find u on telegram,
Plz share ur telegram id
Thank you sir