i dont mean to be so offtopic but does anyone know a trick to get back into an instagram account?? I was dumb lost the account password. I appreciate any assistance you can offer me.
Particle acceleration =local(temporal) acceleration + convective acceleration. Acceleration is zero ( @30:10 ) not only because the flow is steady (making temporal acceleration zero) but also because the flow is fully developed (making the convective part of acceleration zero as well, ofcourse with the simplification that flow is 1-D so v=w=0). Also, I believe axi-symmetric flow implies del(any flow property)/del(theta)=0 (no variation of any flow property like three velocity components and pressure along the azimuth). Correct me if I am wrong, but that's what I think! Good lectures, anyway!
minor loses in piping system are : a) less than the friction factor losses b) due to viscous stresses C)assumed to vary linearly with velocity D)obtained by using loss coefficients E)independent of the flow rate
Thank you so much sir, aapki video bhut jyada effective hoti hai . Sir ek request AAPKI AGAR FLIGHT MECHANICS OR GATE AEROSPACE KE SUBJECTS KI CLASSES AGAR AVAILABLE KRA DE TO BHUT BDI HELP HO JAYEGI
At 30:18 Why are you considering only local acceleration? In F=ma, does the acceleration term not mean net or total acceleration. If that is so, we must take into account the convective acceleration or assume the flow to be uniform?? Please clarify...
At the 30:42 sec you explained acceleration is 0, how ? In steady flow local acceleration is 0 but convective acceleration is not zero. So how you said that total acceleration is 0. Please explain?
might be I am wrong but if find my question genuine...please suggest... @12:33 in third line of derivation , The upper A in numerator is the area of the section, from which liquid is passing... The A in denominator is the area of surface which is in under study of viscocity.. I mean the denominator A is representing the surface area for which we had derived the viscous force... What I think, both these area is not the same , then what is the logic behind canceling out both of these A.. I might be wrong , anyone who can clear my confusion....
Sir discharge ki value nikaalte time dQ me area 2(pi)r dr li h but aage Q/A me A ki value (pi)R square h. Sir dQ ke time bhi area (pi)r square hona chaahiye kya?
Onkar Sharma dQ is discharge through elemental area. Therefore 'da' is area of elemental fluid. thus, da=pi(r+dr)^2-pi.r^2 Solving above eqn we get, da=2.pi.r.dr+pi.dr^2 since dr is infinitely small pi.dr^2 is neglected. Thus da=2.pi.r.dr
Problem:- general sinusoidal velocity profile for laminar boundary-layer flow on a flat plate can be taken as u =A sin (By) + C. State the three boundary conditions applicable to the velocity profile, and thus evaluate thei constants A, B, C. Sir give solution
it indicates that velocity decreses as r increases .. as r -----> R than u------->0 i.e as we move away from axis u decreases untill its value is 0 at boundary
if i have a spiral tube, and if i want to calculate the frictional loss what length i have to consider, the curvilinear path or only the height between two end ?
Sir actually you mention that the local acceleration is zero, but there will be convective accelation, ie Velocity will change along x,y & z. Since we have assumed asymmetric flow , the velocity will not change along theta. But it will change along x and z so there will be acceleration right? If this right then we cant be able to put a=0. Kindly explain
Venugopal sir your teaching approach is outstanding. Sir i would be greatly obliged if you explain FLOW BETWEEN PARELLEL PLATE, KE and MOMENTUM ENERGY CORRECTION FACTOR..
in the video of Euler equation derivation, we considered acceleration as convective and local, there as it was steady flow, local acceleration becomes zero and convective acceleration exists which involved as velocity term in the equation, but here acceleration is considered as local only, we didn't consider convective acceleration in the derivation of Hagen poiseuille equation, so what would be the reason for it sir ?
for average velocity , why cant we directly integrate the equation of velocity and then take its mean ? Please answer if someone knows the reason . Ik that it gives a different answer if would give 1/12 instead of 1/8 times the whole term() .
pressure varies in both x and y direction. dp will give us change in pressure in both x and y (rho*g*h ) directions. while we are trying to find pressure change independent of y direction thats why we use partial differentiation .
Bahut Badiya Seedhi BAAT No Bakwaas
54 minutes Worth it All Concepts Cleared .
Thanks so much sir...you and your gate academy plus team for their dedication...
i dont mean to be so offtopic but does anyone know a trick to get back into an instagram account??
I was dumb lost the account password. I appreciate any assistance you can offer me.
@@liamanson3082 bsdk parhai pay focus kar insta ko lan mar
thank you so much sir ji ......aaj ka lecture ekdam bindas wala hai....
Saurabh Dubey thanks....
your always welcome sir...
i am very thankful to you sir
Thank you sir...
I like your way of teaching...
It's simply THE BEST...
Sir, Add a tag "Navier Strokes" for this video ,
@@shubhamkumargupta3478 bhaiya 2 saal pehle comment diya tha
phir apne comment pe recomment
gazab aadmi ho
@@Ab-lifts 😂 are koi comment delete krdiya iske upar wala 😂
ise kehta hai teacher ..... waah sirji chaah gaye aap
Ayush Rathore thanks
Particle acceleration =local(temporal) acceleration + convective acceleration. Acceleration is zero ( @30:10 ) not only because the flow is steady (making temporal acceleration zero) but also because the flow is fully developed (making the convective part of acceleration zero as well, ofcourse with the simplification that flow is 1-D so v=w=0). Also, I believe axi-symmetric flow implies del(any flow property)/del(theta)=0 (no variation of any flow property like three velocity components and pressure along the azimuth). Correct me if I am wrong, but that's what I think! Good lectures, anyway!
Thanks a lot sir🙏🙏... you cleared all my doubts and explained everything very well
One of the detailed and great lecture i have ever seen 👍👍
He issssssss masterrrrr piece..
sir, you are awesome. If possible please make videos on another missing subjects also. I am very very thankful to you
Awsm way too teach
Thnk uuh soo soo much sir... 🙏
Your video provide very clear concept
Awesome👏✊👍..
Sir aapka explanation is superb .. each and every thing is explained in detail .... Tq sir for your efforts .
Thoroughly explained .. Thanks alot
Excellent lecture of all time ❤
Thank your for all the efforts. Very well explained.
minor loses in piping system are :
a) less than the friction factor losses b) due to viscous stresses
C)assumed to vary linearly with velocity
D)obtained by using loss coefficients
E)independent of the flow rate
Thank you so much sir, aapki video bhut jyada effective hoti hai .
Sir ek request AAPKI AGAR FLIGHT MECHANICS OR GATE AEROSPACE KE SUBJECTS KI CLASSES AGAR AVAILABLE KRA DE TO BHUT BDI HELP HO JAYEGI
Plz start with thermodynamics also your superbly teaching thanku sir plz plz thermodynamics
sir, aaapke teach krne ka tareeka bahut accha he
Best lecture for Reynolds number 😀
You are a magician sir. I am sure of my strength ie. Fluid mechanics..
Thanku very much sir... Your videos are really helpful. Upload videos daily and u are awsome👍👍
Lavleen Dhalla thanks
At 30:18
Why are you considering only local acceleration?
In F=ma, does the acceleration term not mean net or total acceleration. If that is so, we must take into account the convective acceleration or assume the flow to be uniform??
Please clarify...
the flow is steady. so no convective acceleration
No doubts please because ur lectures r simply superb k.
mazaa aagay sir... you tech very nicely
At the 30:42 sec you explained acceleration is 0, how ? In steady flow local acceleration is 0 but convective acceleration is not zero. So how you said that total acceleration is 0.
Please explain?
It's 1d flow and pressure differential constant therefore acceleration is 0
Because we consider uniform flow
Thanku so much sir ..your lecture is more helpful for exam sir
Thank u so much sir for explaining very easy way to understand................
thank u soo much sir very conceptual session & i solved gate question
Excellent sir
Thankyou.
You are great sir your way of explanation is too good sir ....
please give the video on the other civil engineering topics.. thank you sir
it is very helpful for me ,thanku sir
Flawless
Sir
In shear stress distribution
What is the meaning of negative sign
Plz explain
the shear stress is opposite to the direction of flow.
Awesome sir....
Why we don't consider the convective acceleration in Hagen poise....equation
If pressure gradient is constant then there will be no convective acceleration
Why you have not considered convective component of acceleration in shear stress distribution?
Same question
Please reply
Wonderful teacher..please take more questions
Thank you sir👌👌👌👌
thanks u so much sir..
super duper video lacture
Sir - college mai apne experiment kiya hoga.
Me - 🔔 kuch nahi kiya, tabhi ye haal hai.😂😂😂
op bolte
That's Darcy's equation or Hagens equation..the last one?
Sir, what indicate " - " Sign in shear stress distribution and velocity distribution
Best video for me
Thank u sir
might be I am wrong but if find my question genuine...please suggest...
@12:33 in third line of derivation ,
The upper A in numerator is the area of the section, from which liquid is passing...
The A in denominator is the area of surface which is in under study of viscocity.. I mean the denominator A is representing the surface area for which we had derived the viscous force...
What I think, both these area is not the same , then what is the logic behind canceling out both of these A..
I might be wrong , anyone who can clear my confusion....
Sir please explain the laminar flow through the inclined pipe (viscous)
Nice lecture 🙏
Thanks a lot sir
thankyou sir
Great job sir ...
Sir discharge ki value nikaalte time dQ me area 2(pi)r dr li h but aage Q/A me A ki value (pi)R square h. Sir dQ ke time bhi area (pi)r square hona chaahiye kya?
Onkar Sharma
dQ is discharge through elemental area. Therefore 'da' is area of elemental fluid.
thus,
da=pi(r+dr)^2-pi.r^2
Solving above eqn we get,
da=2.pi.r.dr+pi.dr^2
since dr is infinitely small pi.dr^2 is neglected.
Thus da=2.pi.r.dr
Thank you so much sir 👍👌🙏❤️🔥😎
NICE CLASS SIR
nice videos sir
Sir ye discharge through elements me umax see ke multiply kiye 2pirdr me
Problem:- general sinusoidal velocity profile for laminar boundary-layer flow on a flat plate can be taken as u =A sin (By) + C. State the three boundary conditions applicable to the velocity profile, and thus evaluate thei constants A, B, C.
Sir give solution
Please reply..u( max) & u (avr) me -ve sign kya denote kr rha hai sir.
it indicates that velocity decreses as r increases ..
as r -----> R than u------->0
i.e as we move away from axis u decreases untill its value is 0 at boundary
Sir can you pls explain why u(velocity) expression is negative?
Nice lecture !!
pls Sir, do you have lectures that you have done in English?
Explain physical significance with practically relevent examples & simultaneously describe it mathematically......
if i have a spiral tube, and if i want to calculate the frictional loss what length i have to consider, the curvilinear path or only the height between two end ?
The length through which the fluid flows
Thank you sir 😊❤️
Sir, how can we cancel Area by area in Reynolds no......bcz both areas are different... please explain
sir
jet striking on horizontal Pate is in which module plzzz let me no sir
It will be in different playlist.
Fluid Machinery
Sir actually you mention that the local acceleration is zero, but there will be convective accelation, ie Velocity will change along x,y & z. Since we have assumed asymmetric flow , the velocity will not change along theta. But it will change along x and z so there will be acceleration right? If this right then we cant be able to put a=0. Kindly explain
Venugopal sir your teaching approach is outstanding. Sir i would be greatly obliged if you explain FLOW BETWEEN PARELLEL PLATE, KE and MOMENTUM ENERGY CORRECTION FACTOR..
This is for masters degree bro not here .
sir sare equations me jo negative sign hai vo kya indicate kar raha hai? please explain it.
Sir, You should change the title of this video ro "Laminar Flow"
in the video of Euler equation derivation, we considered acceleration as convective and local, there as it was steady flow, local acceleration becomes zero and convective acceleration exists which involved as velocity term in the equation, but here acceleration is considered as local only, we didn't consider convective acceleration in the derivation of Hagen poiseuille equation, so what would be the reason for it sir
?
or as it was pipe flow which means uniform flow, convective accelereation maight be zero
What happened to convective acceleration
navier stokes equation which module me hai
Sir y is the pressure gradient constant ?why does it making it const makes accln zero
Sir, you are great
for average velocity , why cant we directly integrate the equation of velocity and then take its mean ? Please answer if someone knows the reason . Ik that it gives a different answer if would give 1/12 instead of 1/8 times the whole term() .
1/6*
Dear sir please make videos lectures on Fluid Machine also..,,......
sir, why we use taylors expasion, why we cannot write change in pressure when we move dx distance as (p+dp)?
pressure varies in both x and y direction. dp will give us change in pressure in both x and y (rho*g*h ) directions.
while we are trying to find pressure change independent of y direction thats why we use partial differentiation .
@@aakashkapoor5761 thankyou
Thank you so much sir..
Sir viscous force left to right nhi lagega?
sir last me pressure difference p2-p1 hona chaiye na
aapne usme p1-p2 likha hai because integrate to aap 2nd boundary to 1st boundary karre ho
Kaash hamare time me bhi koi video banane wala hota...
Sir discharge, velocity of pipe sab minus kyu ho raha hain??
Actually pressure gradient k sath aata h vo -ve sir ne bhar likh dia h
Sir soil mechanics kha bhi video banana 🙏
Thanks sir.
Sir, what is the significance of negative sign in maximum and mean velocity in pipe ?
I have the same doubt but i think The value of dP/dx will be negative.. so it will cancel that negative sign ..
Sir kindly make a video on energy equation for viscous flow. I need this topic urgently
Sir shear stress equation for pipe flow turbulent flow ke liye bhi valid hai...
Sir plz make vedio for flow through annulus
Any weightage on this topic in gate? Any questions asked in gate based on this topic?
Sir please aap navier stokees equn pr video upload kr dijiye
sir, explain about power calculation in flow in pipe
sir hum intregation head loss me 2-to-1 q jare h plz reply
Super sir
V good
waiting for next video