Me too!!!! I actually don't even remember exactly how many months ago it's been since one of Doug's lessons showed up in my TH-cam feed as something I might be interested in. It may have been when I was researching some of Charles Hayden Spurgeon's sermons but I just did click on to Doug's lesson and never looked back. Been following him ever since and when I have time to spare, I go back to lessons I haven't yet watched. I just know I am extremely grateful to have found him and I continue to learn and understand more of Scripture than I have in all of my nearly 68 years of life. I have encouraged others in my sphere of influence to give him a listen so that they too may increase in knowledge and understanding of the Bible.
How do you reconcile Jesus' statement in John 3:17 that "God did not send the Son into the world to judge the world" with Jesus' fulfilment of Micah's prophecy in bringing division, wrath and "fulfillment" of the Law's curses for disobedience? Is the latter not judgment?
Jesus Himself said that He did not come to bring peace but a sword. (Matt 10:34-36) The division of families is mentioned in that verse because when a Jew decided to become a Christian their own would ostracize them. John is correct also. Jesus came that the world might be saved through Him. Jesus fulfilled that by being the ultimate sacrifice for sin. He even states that He was only there for the lost sheep of the house of Israel. From Jesus’ crucifixion, the Jews had about 40 years (a generation) to repent and accept Him as their Messiah. They rejected Him, the gospel went to the gentiles, and judgment on that old system came between AD 70-73. Both Matt 10:34-36 and John 3:17 are true at the same time. When Jesus first appeared to Israel it was for salvation. When Jesus appeared again (read Josephus’ account of the fall of Jerusalem in AD 70) it was for judgement.
Is it that Jesus did come to bring judgment on Israel, but came to bring salvation to all tongues and tribes. Judgment reserved for Israel, becasue the law and covenant was given to them, not the entire world. Deuteronomy blessings and curses were for Israel only.
Great study rabbi definitely an eye opener
Absolutely awesome. I wish more people would listen to your teachings.
Me too!!!! I actually don't even remember exactly how many months ago it's been since one of Doug's lessons showed up in my TH-cam feed as something I might be interested in. It may have been when I was researching some of Charles Hayden Spurgeon's sermons but I just did click on to Doug's lesson and never looked back. Been following him ever since and when I have time to spare, I go back to lessons I haven't yet watched. I just know I am extremely grateful to have found him and I continue to learn and understand more of Scripture than I have in all of my nearly 68 years of life. I have encouraged others in my sphere of influence to give him a listen so that they too may increase in knowledge and understanding of the Bible.
Thank you!
Cathy, you are so encouraging, both by your words and your desire to continue learning. I appreciate the kinds words.
Okay. I guess you mean NC salvation versus OC wrath. Thanks.
How do you reconcile Jesus' statement in John 3:17 that "God did not send the Son into the world to judge the world" with Jesus' fulfilment of Micah's prophecy in bringing division, wrath and "fulfillment" of the Law's curses for disobedience? Is the latter not judgment?
That’s a very reasonable question!!
What is the context of John 3:17 and what does Jesus mean by “world”?
Jesus Himself said that He did not come to bring peace but a sword. (Matt 10:34-36)
The division of families is mentioned in that verse because when a Jew decided to become a Christian their own would ostracize them.
John is correct also. Jesus came that the world might be saved through Him. Jesus fulfilled that by being the ultimate sacrifice for sin. He even states that He was only there for the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
From Jesus’ crucifixion, the Jews had about 40 years (a generation) to repent and accept Him as their Messiah. They rejected Him, the gospel went to the gentiles, and judgment on that old system came between AD 70-73.
Both Matt 10:34-36 and John 3:17 are true at the same time.
When Jesus first appeared to Israel it was for salvation.
When Jesus appeared again (read Josephus’ account of the fall of Jerusalem in AD 70) it was for judgement.
Is it that Jesus did come to bring judgment on Israel, but came to bring salvation to all tongues and tribes. Judgment reserved for Israel, becasue the law and covenant was given to them, not the entire world. Deuteronomy blessings and curses were for Israel only.
Yes, that was my thought too. The idea of Jesus participating in the OC wrath for curses is new to me.