I started this for fun, but now it got me curious. In physics, I was taught that speed = angular velocity * radius in a circular movement. Assuming the light on the wall can be represented by a circular motion with varying radii, I can make a function v(y) = w * sqrt(x^2 + y^2). With w (angular velocity) being 8pi/min, and x being fixed at 3km, we obtain v(y) = 8pi * sqrt(9 + y^2). Substituting 1 for y brings us v(1) = 8*sqrt(10)*pi. I wonder why this seemingly physically correct approach has a different result than yours. Any clues?
how is this instructor not well known? This made so much sense.
Bust Down!! Love it man!!! Appreciate the HELP!! Peace and Tekerz!!
Thank you for this explanation, I can finally sleep now!
Thank you so much
You can also do the same with inverse tan derivative and get the same result. But that needs chain rule
Thank you
Thank you i can't understand this problem. You are very good teacher
Thank you so much!
whatttt you made this seem so easy! thank you so much
Love it.
I started this for fun, but now it got me curious. In physics, I was taught that speed = angular velocity * radius in a circular movement. Assuming the light on the wall can be represented by a circular motion with varying radii, I can make a function v(y) = w * sqrt(x^2 + y^2). With w (angular velocity) being 8pi/min, and x being fixed at 3km, we obtain v(y) = 8pi * sqrt(9 + y^2). Substituting 1 for y brings us v(1) = 8*sqrt(10)*pi. I wonder why this seemingly physically correct approach has a different result than yours. Any clues?
HI THANKS
Actually it's a quite simple . But its language is tougher than problem.
These questions are from which platform?