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Calculation is wrong.... Please cross check @23:02

what is the mean of P in this video? I try to make my homework but the threshold voltage is 0.13. And if voltage greater than 0.13 the transmitted bit is 0. AWGN channel has 5dB SNR. I must derivate a probability function for the situation that is the transmitted bit is 0 but received bit is 1. Can anybody help me

my professor copied everything from your lectures . and he has the audacity to warns us from copying assignments

clear and NICE!! thank you very much 😍😍😍😍😍

thanks you very much sir for such a beautiful explanantion.

12:50 Does anyone have any documents on how to get that solution? I am a bit confusion there

My question here is that all these derivation are still based on BPSK modulation or for any MCS in general?

excellent

At 17:40 1/2*e^(-5) = 3.4 * 10^(-3) ..... what am I missing?

YOu are a king

why does u equals sqrt(2/mu)tan(theta)??

8:22

YOU'RE A GREAT LECTURE, THIS FIELD IS NOT EASY BUT YOU'RE MAKING IT AWESOME FOR US

Dears, Is ( L: number of antennas ) represent the number of antennas of receiver or transmitter or all antennas in the systems?

at 5:40 why does the lower limit of integration becomes( p/standard deviation) instead of p... can any one make it clear please

गुरू गोविन्द दोऊ खड़े, काके लागूं पांय। बलिहारी गुरू अपने गोविन्द दियो बताय।। u r great!! sir

Shouldn’t the conclusion be restricted to BPSK only?

You are God !!!

Sir, I love you.

can anyone give the matlab code for implementing the models for calculation of ber of various digital modulation techniques such as ASK, FSK, PSK, M-PSK. Also implement models to predict propagation losses for communication microwave signals

thank you sir

5:12 SHOULD E0-E(L-1) OR E1-EL ??

At the end 23:00 (1-lamda)^2 should be divided by 4.

sir,when you are talking about average power it is whether rms power because average power of sinusoidal wave is zero

At 17:32 Q(x) <= 0.5 exp( -0.5 x*x ) ----------> EQ #0 for 10 dB SNR, SNR = 10 Pe <= 3.91*10^(-4) ----------> EQ #1 At 14:42: Pe = 7.82 * 10^(-4) ------------> EQ #2 The result from EQ #1 is less than EQ #2 But according to EQ #0: Pe <= 0.5 exp( -0.5 x*x ) Can someone explain what I am missing here? Thanks!

So this video is nothing but the derivation of the formula that had been written directly in the previous video right?

thanks

thanks

thank you

Sir,Your work is marvellous and magnificent

This proof is unnecessarily complicated. A much simpler proof can be got by swapping integrals, integrating rayleigh first and then completing the squares. You do have to use the expression for variance of gaussian also.

sir what about BER in MIMO fading channels

Very thorough. Thank you

Indian . you are the worst one who try to explain communication theory. You never concern about the quality of your lectures but view number of your videos. Actually, you are disturbing people from finding the highest quality information

Thank you very much professor Aditya!

Thank-you so much!

sir, i need BER,SNR and achievable rate for wireless channel from equation y=hx +n how to find?

sir , really this video for my project works

Deep intuition for Deep Fade !!

What would the BER be if the receiver didn't have the CSI and could not perform MRC? So instead of SNR after MRC you had some sub-optimal scheme at the receiver? Great lectures by the way, I am from a maths background going into comms and these lectures have made things SO much clearer than any of the literature I have found!

You change the complex math to very intuition view, you are the best teacher.

Sir please explain Exact BER Expression for Nakagami Fading Wireless Channel

Thank you for the course. One thing I want to correct, w=h/||h||^2 because it should be that w^H*h=1 so w=h/(|h1|^2 + |h2|^2) no sqrt needed.

Highly recommended.

Sir, Very helpful.

Best explaination... very thorough thanks!

Are you sure that the 1/2 coefficient in the approximation belongs there? The approximated value in the example seems to be pretty much exactly 1/2 of the exact value.

thanks for the lecture

in 1+lemda/2, if we approx the 1/snr=0, then can we approx the 1/snr=0 in (1-lemda/2), if not then why?

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